Questions from Hrh on the word "Other" in Colossians 1, the word "Firstborn" the Spirit, Trinity and Heaven etc.

Webmaster: People like Jerry do not realize that their complaints against the NWT are completely fabricated. When these same complaints are held against other Bibles, they do not match up. Jerry is a prime example of those caught up in the anti_JW propaganda that is much too eagerly swallowed. All this could simply be avoided by investigating the issues for yourself as I have done, but you cannot force someone from believing what it is that they want, despite the facts.

I've done my homework my friend.  I know this because you did not answer direct questions or comment on half of what I sent you.  So I'll shall try again.
Also when answering questions please don't refer me to other passages in other bibles, and ask me why the change.  You are defending the NWT so let's stick to the NWT.  I have numbered my questions so we can stay together this time.
Reply: Why, are you afraid of other Bibles. Is it because it is devastating to your attack on the NWT when other Bibles play the same game. Oh, BTW, you are not setting the rules here. I will use any Protestant and Catholic Bible at my disposal, but you may use the NWT if you wish. It is good also.
Let's begin.  In reference to Col l:15-17 your answer was all bibles insert the word "other" where translators feel it is needed.  The KJV does it 67 times, the RSV 100 times, etc.  Well this is true, but they do not use it in this passage.  Now here is the first question.
1.  Why is the word "other" inserted in this passage.  Again there are two words Paul could have used if he wanted to show that Jesus was another.  First is Allos which means another of the same kind (#243 Strongs Con)  Next is Heteres means another of a different kind (#2087-2088)  By using brackets NWT acknowledges that it is not in Greek.  There is no linguistic reason at all to insert this word here four times.... unless you are trying to support the presupposition that Jesus is not God.
Reply: Col 1:20 says  that Jesus will "reconcile all things unto himself." Will he also reconcile Satan unto himself? No! That is because there are exceptions to the word ALL/PAS/PANTA.
Why doesn't the Greek text uses ALLOS or hETEROS here? Because "other" is a legitimate part of PAS/PANTA.
In fact, had you bothered to investigate  the additions of "other" in the RSV, KJV etc., you would have seen that it most often followed PAS/PANTA, just like it does in the NWT. [The New Living Translation adds the word "else" in verse 17, "He existed before everything else began"] In fact, I have gone so far as to check every occurence of ALLOS and hETEROS in the Greek text, and I could not find any occurence of these words alongside PAS/PANTA. Obviously, it was not common to do so, showing again, the superiority of the NWT.
As we can see, the linguistic reason here is strengthened by the fact that Jesus here (verse 15) is the firstborn, a part of creation. More on this below:
2.  Why do the JWs interpret the word "first born" to mean first created.  This is not correct because there is a Greek word for "First Created" and it was not used.  The Greek for firstborn is proto with tikto:  Firstborn.  The Greek for first created would be proto with ktizo:  first created.  Paul did not use the second but the first. (3)  Your comments please.
Reply: Again, you are falling into the trap you did with ALLOS and hETEROS. Protoktizo was not in common use back in the first century, and would not be for a 100 to 200 years after Christ. Interestingly though, when this word was eventually used, it was used of Christ. John Patrick, in his Clement of Alexandria notes:
"Clement repeatedly identifies the Word with the Wisdom of God, and yet refers to Wisdom as the first-created of God; while in one passage he attaches the epithet "First-created," and in another "First-begotten," to the Word." p.103,104, note 6.
The Philosophy of the Church Fathers, Volume 1 Faith, Trinity, Incarnation, by Harry Austryn Wolfson, 2nd Edition, Revised:
"Zahn casually remarks that Clement 'always makes a sharp distinction between the only uncreated God the Father and the Son or Logos who was begotten or created before the rest of creation.'...1. cf. Th. Zahn, "Supplementum Clementinium", (1884), 144, p. 204, 92
"It is undoubtably with reference to this "coming forth" of the Logos prior to the creation of the world that Clement speaks of the Logos as "firstborn" [protogonos] and of wisdom, which he idtentified with the Logos, as the "first-created" [protoktistos]...30 Strom. VI, Ibid. V. 14., ibid. p 209
The prototokos in Col 1:15 is a partitive genitive. Let us look at the Greek here, "hos estin   eikOn tou theou tou aoratou, prOtotokos [firstborn]  pasEs [of all] ktiseOs [creation]"
All the words in red are genitives, but the ones we are interested in are the ones following prOtotokos. This means "firstborn" is in the genitive construction, hence we have the translation, "firstborn of." When checking this with other uses in the LXX (Septuagint), the outcome is devastating for Trinitarians, as "firstborn of" always indicates that the referent is part of the class or group it is joined to.
For example: LXX Genesis 4:4 And Abel also brought of the first born of his sheep
(This makes the firstborn a member, or part, of the sheep)
LXX Exodus 11:5 And every first-born in the land of Egypt shall die, from the first-born of Pharao that sits on the throne, even to the first-born of the woman-servant that is by the mill, and to the first-born of all cattle.
(The firstborn of Pharoah is of the house of Pharoah, the firstborn of cattle was one of the cows, etc).
There are no exceptions to this. Jesus, as the firstborn of creation, is a member of creation, he is a created being. For more click here, and here
When the NIV translates Col 1:15 as "the firstborn over all creation," it is actually being dishonest and biased.
see also An Examination of Colossians 1:15-20 by Mark Larson
Next in reference to John 8:58 in the 1969 Kit the footnote reads, "This is not the Being, or the "I Am" at Exodus 3:14.  Also in the 1985 Kit appendix 2F, page 1145 it reads, "Attempting to identify Jesus with Jehovah some say that "E-GOEI-MI is the equivalent of the Hebrew expression "I Am" which is used by God.
4.  Where is the NWT is the Hebrew expression "I Am" that was used by God?  And if it is in Exodus 3:14
5.  Why was it changed to I shall prove to Be?  If Jesus was not using the divine name used by God in Exodus 3:14 KJV "I Am", and if he was not claiming to be God in John 8:58/10:30-33
Reply: The expression "I am" is indeed used by God, as it is also used of those who are not God. [Even in the NWT, looking up phrases like "I am Jehovah" will bring back a positive result]
A few verses after Jesus' statement in John 8:58, a blind beggar also uses the words I AM/EGW EIMI. Does this make him God?
Let me ask you a question. In Exodus 3:12 we have the same Hebrew words that we have in verse 14. But in verse 12, in most of the Bibles I own, it is translated "I will be." Yet, 2 verses later, it is translated "I AM. Why was it changed to I AM? It seems the NWT (and Moffatt etc) are the only ones consistent here. I have more on this already (click here), so there is no need to repeat everything here.
6.  What misunderstanding did they have about what it was Jesus said that led them to claim that he was making himself out to be God?
Reply: In John 8, they never understood Jesus as claiming to be God. In John 10:30-33, Jesus quoted Psalm 82 where even Judges are called gods. Like Ryrie says of John 10:34, "Christ's point is that if the O.T. uses the word "God" (Elohim) of men who were representative of God, then the Jews should not oppose Him for calling Himself the Son of God." If Jesus were really "Equal to God" as the Jews have wrongly claimed by making God his Father, then here would have been a great opportunity to explain the Trinity to an unbeleiving nation. But what does he do? He answers, "The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father doing. No explanation whatsoever of a Triune Deity. Amazing!
7.  Also, why did the soldiers fall to the ground in John 18:5-6?
Reply: "As Jesus said to them, 'I am he,' they retreated and fell to the ground." NAB
Maybe they tripped over each other, the Bible does not explain, but it was probably for the reason mentioned in the NIV Study Bible, "They came to arrest a peasant, but they were met in the dim light by a majestic person."
Jesus uses EGW EIMI 5 times in John 8, yet no one ever lost their footing. Does this mean that we should read into this that Jesus was claiming to be God the Son, the second person of a triune deity? Don't be silly.
We should be thankful that Jesus was not the Almighty, as then they would have died (Ex 33:20). Even when Moses was approached in Exodus 3, it was actually an angel doing all the talking (see verse 2 and Acts 7:30).
God said he raised Jesus from the dead in Acts 17:3l, and Jesus said in John 2:19-21 that he would do it, and in Romans 8:ll the Holy Spirit raised Jesus.
8.  Who raised Jesus?  If the three are not one
9  Which two lied?
Reply: The Spirit is not a person.
"Spirit is the principle of life and vital activity. The spirit is the breath of life (Gn 6:17; 7:15, 22; BS 38:23; WS 15:11, 16; 16:14). The breath is the breath of God, the wind, communicated to man by divine inspiration....The spirit of Yahweh or the spirit of God (Elohim) is a **force** that has unique effects upon man...and the spirit of Yahweh is a **force** which operates the works of Yahweh the savior and the judge. The spirit of Yahweh is often the **force** which inspires prophecy (Nm 11:17 ff; 24:2; 2 S 23:2; 1 Ch 12:18; Is 61:1; Mi 3:8; Ezk 2:2; 3:12, 14, 24; 8:3; 11:1, 5, 24; 37:1; 43:5; Ne 9:30; Zc 7:12). The prophet is a man of the spirit (Ho 9:7)."
Fortman says,
"The Jews never regarded the spirit as a person; nor is there any solid evidence that any Old Testament writer held this view....The Holy Spirit is usually presented in the Synoptics and in Acts as a divine force or power." The Triune God, pp. 6, 15
God did raise Jesus with His spirit, as he does all things with His power.
That is why the Good News Bible can call the Spirit of God the "power of God." Gen 1:2.
But what of John 2:19-21?
"As with His usage of parables, Jesus' cryptic statement most likely was designed to reveal the truth to His disciples but conceal its meaning from unbelievers who questioned Him (Matt. 13:10, 11). Only after his resurrection, however, did the disciples understand the real significance of this statement (v.22; cf. Matt. 12:40). Importantly, through the death and resurrection of Christ, temple worship in Jerusalem was destroyed (cf. 4:21) and reinstituted in the hearts of those who were built into a spiritual temple called the church (Eph. 2:19-22)."
-footnote at John 2:19, NKJV MacArthur Study Bible
Says A. T. Robertson in Word Pictures in the New Testament:
"Recall [John] 2:19 where Jesus said: 'And in three days I will raise it up.' He did not mean that he will raise himself from the dead independently of the Father as the active agent (Rom. 8:11)."-(New York, 1932), Vol. V, p. 183.
We have the prophet Ezekiel doing the same thing in Ezekiel 43:3, "I came to bring the city [Jerusalem] to ruin," that is, by predicting its destruction. Ezekiel actually did not destroy Jerusalem; but by prophecying it, he could speak of himself as doing it in a predictive sense. (cf. Jeremiah 1:10.) Similarly, the Father resurrected his Son, but Jesus could speak of doing so in a prophetic sense.
Now there three in the Bible called God.  First is the Father (2 Peter 1:17)  Next the son John 1:1, Isaiah 9:6, John 5:18/10:30, and the Holy Spirit Acts 5:3,5.  Before we get on active force again, please remember you cannot lie to an active force only a personality.  You cannot lie to a table, chair, book or an active force, only a personality.  Peter recognized the Holy Spirit as a person (Acts 13:2)  Also, you cannot quote an active force.
Reply: Can you quote the Bible? Is the Bible a person? Is not the Bible given to us via God's spirit? (2 Pet 1:21). The scriptures are "God-breathed",  theopneustos which comes from the word Pneuma/spirit. Can you lie/play falsely to the Scriptures and the Law? Yes, but does that make it a person?
"God's Word lives, and is active...it can judge thoughts and purposes of the heart." Heb 4:12 Beck.
Scriptures can speak to us...it say things (see John 7:38, 42; Rom 4:3; 9:17; 10:11; 11:2; Gal. 4:30; 1Tim. 5:18; Jas 4:5). Does this make it a person, or a force that impacts our lives?

The Bible is a book of the Sacred Name. The Name that you can give thanks to (Ps 106:47; 138:2), a Name that is blessed (Ps 113:2; 145:1), a Name that is praised (Ps 113:3; 135:3; 148:13; 149:3), a Name that is given glory (Ps 115:1), a Name that you can sing to (Ps 135:3), a Name that is exalted (Ps 34:3), a Name that saves ((Ps 54:1), a Name that is feared (Ps 61:5), a Name that is loved (Ps 69:36). The Name is part of God, just as is his breath/spirit. You cannot think of one without the other.
Does this make it a person though? "A record was written before him of those who feared him and had respect for his name." Mal 3:16 Revised English Bible
The Law, ...your Heart
Is the spirit God in Acts 5:3-4? Let us see what it says:
"But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thy heart to lie to the Holy Spirit, and to keep back part of the price of the land? While it remained, did it not remain thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thy power? How is it that thou hast conceived this thing in thy heart? thou has not lied unto men, but unto God." ASV
Do you notice that the last part is directed towards Peter when it says, "thou has not lied unto men?" See, they lied to Peter, who was "filled with holy spirit" Acts 4:8
And when they lied to Peter, they lied to God. Later on, in the same chapter, we have a similar situation in vss 38 and 39 where these words were directed towards Peter and the disciples, "Refrain from these men, and let them alone: for if this counsel or this work be of men, it will be overthrown: but if it is of God, ye will not be able to overthrow them; lest haply ye be found even to be fighting against God." Peter and his men were not God, but representative standing in place of God, and when something is done against them, it is done against God. "Whoever touches you touches the pupil of his own eye." Zech 2:8 New Jewish Publication Society/ Tanakh That is why the Scofield Study Bible cross-references Acts 5:4 to Scriptures like Numbers 16:11, 1Samuel 8:7 and 1 Thess 4:8 which says, " Therefore he that rejecteth, rejecteth not man, but God, who giveth his Holy Spirit unto you." ASV

The OT condemns polytheism and declares that God is one and is to be worshipped and loved as such. (Deut. 6:4,5/ Isaiah 45:21)
10.  Please explain to me how there are three called God in the Bible, but only one God.  Either its the Trinity or the JWs are guilty of polytheism.
Reply: Actually, in the Bible, prophets are called God (Ex 4:16; 7:1), as are Judges (Ex 21:6; 22:8; Ps 82:1) as are kings (Ps 45:6) as are angels (Ps 8:5; 97:7; 138:1). Even Satan is referred to as God (2 Cor 4:4). But we obviously do not refer to these as God. That is why the Bible uses the term "almighty," a term never used of Jesus Christ or any of the others mentioned above.
Jane Schaberg writes: "The term 'ELOHIM' is applied to Melchizedek five times in 11Q Melchizedek, and Philo calls Moses QEOS" (Jane Schaberg, The Father, The Son, and the Holy Spirit: The Triadic Phrase in Matthew 28:19b_,page 8).
"The pre-Arian discussion of the Angel-Christology did not turn simply on the question whether Christ was an angel, but on another issue, namely, in what sense could he, as an angel, rank as God. The explanation which was offered by the supporters of the Angel-Christology was that Christ, according to his nature, was a high angel, but that he was named 'God'; for the designation 'God' was ambiguous. The word 'God' did mean, in the first place, the absolute divine omnipotence but it was also used for the beings who served this deus verus [Latin, 'god true'= (the) true God]. That these were designated 'gods' implies reverence and recognition of Him who sent them and whom they thus represented. Consequently in the Scriptures (Exod. xxii, 28),  not only angels,  but even men could be called 'gods' [cf. Ps. 8:5; Heb. 2:7, 9; Ps. 82:6, 7; John 10:34, 35] without  according  them the status in the strict sense. Even Latantius [260-330 C.E.] had thought in this way2 ... 2 Latantius, inst. Epitome [The Epitome Of The Divine Institutes], 37."
-Martin Werner, The Formation Of Christian Dogma, p. 140.
"I said you are gods. Scripture gives the name of gods to those on whom God has conferred an honourable office. He whom God has separated, to be distinguished above all others [His Son] is far more worthy of this honourable title ... The passage which Christ quotes [at John 10:34] is in Psalm lxxxii [82], 6, I have said, You are gods, and all of you are children of the Most High; where God expostulates with the kings and judges of the earth, who tyrannically abuse the authority and power for their own sinful passions, for oppressing the poor, and for every evil action ... Christ applies this to the case in hand, that they receive the name of gods, be- cause they are God's ministers for governing the world. For the same reason Scripture calls the angels gods, because by them the glory of God beams forth on the world ... In short, let us know that magistrates are called gods, because God has given them authority."
-John Calvin, Commentary on the Gospel According to John, p. 419, 20.
In the New International Dictionary of the Bible (Editor J.D. Douglas & Merrill C Tenney) page 1070 under "worship" says to prostrate, do obeisance  In your (69 & 85) Kit when translating the word "worship" is translated "did obeisance" every time for Jesus, and the exact same word says worship toward Jehovah.
ll.  What happened to the word for word translation promise in the foreword of both books?
The fact is Jesus was worshipped as God many times according to the Gospel accounts, and he always accepted such worship as appropriate.
Jesus accepted worship from Thomas (John 20:28), the angels (Hebrews l:6)  the wise men (Matt 2:ll), a leper (Matt 8:2, a ruler (Matt 9:18), a blind man (John 9:38), an anonymous woman (Matt 15:25; Mary Magdalene (Matt 28:9, and his diciples (Matt 28:l7)  In the book of Rev, God the Father (4:l0) and Jesus Christ (5:ll-l4) are clearly portrayed as receiving the exact same worship.
12.  Who do you honestly think is wrong here, Jesus or the JWs?
In Hebrew l:6 Jehovah said let all God's angels do obeisance to him (Now we know what that means)  And in Luke 4:8 Jesus said, "It is Jehovah your God you must worship and it is him alone you must render sacred service.
13.  How do you explain this?
Now let's read Rom 14:11 Jehovah says "to me every knee will bend down and every tongue will make open knowledgement to God.  I think both of us will agree this is worship.  So let's read Phil. 2:10,ll.  Imagine that!!  It says the exact same thing about Jesus.
14.  Your comments please.
Reply: Have you ever really bothered to check out the meanings of these words. We will start of the with the Hebrew equivalent, Shachah. Ex 34:14 says, " for thou shalt worship (shachah) no other god: for Jehovah, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous God" ASV
However, this same word for worship, shachah [proskuneo, LXX], was also often used of mere men of honor (see Gen 23:7, 12; 33:3; 43:28; 1 Sam 24:8; Ruth 2:10; 1 Kings 1:31; 2 Kings 4:37; Esther 3:2, 5 etc.), and angels (Jos 5:14; Num 22:31; Gen 18:2; 19:1).
In the Greek, according to W.E. Vine's Expository Dictionary, PROSKUNEO means "to make obeisance, do reverence to...It is used of an act of homage or reverence to God(John 4:24)...to Christ(Matt 2:2)...to a man(Matt 18:26)...to the Dragon(Re. 13:4)...to the Beast(Rev 13:8)...the image of the Beast(Rev 14:11)...to demons(Rev 9:20)...to idols(Acts 7:43)."
Remember, the LXX uses this word when it comes to shachah. It simply means that the word does not hold the same connotations as it does today.
"Then the king Nebuchadnezzar fell upon his face, and worshipped Daniel" Dan 2:46 KJV, RV, ASV
"And all the congregation blessed the Lord God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped the LORD, and the king." 1Chron 29:20 KJV, ASV
Here, king David is given the same worship as Jehovah.
Even the American Standard Version mentions at Matt. 2:2, "The Greek word denotes an act of reverence, whether paid to man (see chap. Matt. 18:26) or to God (see chap. Matt. 4:10)'" ?
So it is necessary for Bible versions to make a distinction, as they all do (see Matt 18:26).
Is the Kingdom Interlinear Translation discriminatory in its inconsistency. I checked this with other interlinears that I own. My NKJV/Majority Text has "obeisance" at Matt 18:26, but "worship" at Heb 1:6. My Marshall/Nestle Interlinear has the same thing in the same places. It appears that they, like the translators of the KIT gave "as literal a translation as possible" and "as nearly as possible word for word" renderings. (see forward KIT).
See also NEB, Young, Byington, NJB, Goodspeed, Newcome, REB, 20th Cent, Schonfield, Confraternity, Douay and Kleist&Lilly etc
In Ephesians 4:4-6 Paul said there is one hope.
15.  How can the JWs have two, one for the l44,000 and one for the JWs.
Reply: Eph 4:4 says "even as also ye were called in one hope **of your calling**"
The entire scripture gives a different spin on this, because the "one hope" pertains to the one we are called for. Try this from another direction. The scripture right after this says that there is, "one Lord, one faith, one baptism," but 2Cor 4:13 says, "we have the same kind of faith as the psalmist had when he said, 'I believed in God, and so I speak.'" New Living Translation (cf. Ps 116:10)
The psalmist was not baptized, the psalmist did not accept Jesus Christ as his saviour, in fact, the psalmist "David never ascended into heaven." Acts 2:34 NLT
But we all worship the same God, all have the hope of life eternal.
Also in verse 5 it reads one Lord.  In Isaiah l0:33 Jehovah is the {true} Lord.  But in Luke 2:ll reads Jesus is {the} Lord. 16.  If there are two Lords why didn't they say "A" Lord in Luke 2:ll?  Ver 6 reads "one God", the JWs have two.
Reply: Reply: JW's do not have 2 gods, as we are one of the few that actually recognize the Biblical use of the word "God." (see above)
Luke 2:11 OTI ETECQH UMIN SHMERON SWTHR OS ESTIN CRISTOS KURIOS EN POLEI DAUID
As you can see, there is actually no article here in the Greek by Lord (KURIOS), it is supplied by the translators of Bible versions (you will notice that the article *the" is often supplied in brackets).
As far as the OT goes, the scripture that is definintely applied to Christ (Psalm 110:1) uses the word adoni, a form of the word that is never used of YHWH, but only humans and angels. Click here for more.
As for the word Lord in the Greek, it is used (a) of an owner, as in Luke 19:33, cp. Matt. 20:8; Acts 16:16; Gal. 4:1; or of one who has the disposal of anything, as the Sabbath, Matt. 12:8; (b) of a master, i.e., one to whom service is due on any ground, Matt. 6:24; 24:50; Eph. 6:5; (c) of an Emperor or King, Acts 25:26; Rev. 17:14; (d) of idols, ironically, 1 Cor. 8:5, cp. Isa. 26:13; (e) as a title of respect addressed to a father, Matt. 21:30, a husband, 1 Pet. 3:6, a master, Matt. 13:27; Luke 13:8, a ruler, Matt. 27:63, an angel, Acts 10:4; Rev. 7:14; (f) and as a title of courtesy addressed to a stranger, John 12:21; 20:15; Acts 16:30.

The Bible has many references to a "lord and king" that refer to human kings. (See 1 Sam 24:8; 26:15, 17, 19; 29:8; 2 Sam. 2:7; 3:21; 4:8; 9:11; 13:33; 14:9 etc). And why not, as they sit on Jehovah's throne (1 Chron 29:23). Like Jesus, they were GIVEN authority.

But isn't the term used for both the Father and the Son?
Consider the following verses:
Rom. 15:6
"you may with one voice glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ"

2 Cor. 1:3
"Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ"

2 Cor. 11:31
"The God and Father of our Lord Jesus"

Eph. 1:3
"Praise be to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ"

Eph. 1:17
"...the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ"

1 Pet. 1:3
"...the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ"

These verses present a few problems:
God the Father is Lord. But when one Lord is the God of another who is also Lord, then they are not the same, or even equal.
If Jesus is subordinate to God only as to his "human nature," then this contradicts the above verses, for there Jesus, in his divine state, has someone who is God to him.

Also it reads "One Father", Jesus is all eternal Father and Mighty God in Isaiah 9:6.  And in Isaiah l0:21 Jehovah is called a "Mighty God".  Imagine that!! They both are God, Lord, Father,  when Paul said there is only one.   In latter part of verse 6 reads "who is over all and through all and in all"  But if you read Matt 28:18 Jesus said "All" authority (not half) has been given me in Heaven and on the Earth.  Either you have one of each or you have a lot of contradictions.
17.  Your comments please.
Reply: And you forget the optimum word here. It is the word GIVEN. Almighty God does not need to be GIVEN anything. By handing over all authority to Christ, he, as Michael, can oust Satan from the heavens (Rev 12:7-12).
"And I heard a great voice in heaven, saying, Now is come the salvation, and the power, and the kingdom of our God, and the authority of his Christ: for the accuser of our brethren is cast down, who accuseth them before our God day and night."
But he eventually hands it back to God, who is excepted from the word "ALL."
1 Cor 15:24-28 says, "Then comes the end, when he delivers the kingdom to God the Father; after destroying every rule and every authority and power. For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. The last enemy to be destroyed is death. For God has put all things in subjection under his feet. But when it says, All things are put in subjection under him, it is plain that he is excepted who put all things under him. When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things unto him, that God may be everything to everyone." RSV
As for Isaiah 9:6, read how it is used in other Bibles:
"Wonder-Counsellor, Divine Champion, Father Ever, Captain of Peace." Byington
"A wonder of a counsellor, a divine hero, a father for all time, a peaceful prince." Moffatt
"in purpose wonderful, in battle God-like...." New English Bible
"Wonderful Counsellor, Mighty Hero, Eternal Father...."Revised English Bible
"great leader, time's father"...Fenton

Why, because this verse has an earlier reference to a human king, like King Hezekiah, the son of
Ahaz; or to Hezekiah initially and Christ finally. Note what some from former years have said regarding this account:

"Hezekiah, who was very unlike his father Ahaz. This passage
is acknowledged, not only by Christians, but by the Chaldee
interpreter, to relate in the same manner, but in a more
excellent sense, to the Messiah––(Annotationes ad vetus et
Novum Testamentum, by Hugo Grotius, a Dutch Arminian,
1583-1645).

"In several places of his Expositions and Sermons, he [LUTHER]
maintains that the epithets belong, not to the person of
Christ, but to his work and office. He understands [ale;
Strongs 410] in the sense of power or ability, citing for his
authority Deut. Xxviii. 32, where, as in about four other
places, the expression occurs of an action's being or not
being "in the power of the hand,"––(Scripture Testimony to the
Messiah, Third ed. Lond. 1837, 3 vol., by Dr. J.P. Smith [it
should fairly be noted that Dr. Smith disapproves of Luther's
rendering])

"The word la [ale] here used is applicable, not only to God,
but to angels and men worthy of admiration. Whence it does
not appear, that the Deity of Christ can be effectually
gathered from this passage."––(apud Sandium, p. 118, SASBOUT
[as quoted in Concession, by Wilson])

"The words of Isaiah, Deus fortis, "strong God," have been
differently interpreted. It is evident, that the term God is
in Hebrew applied figuratively to those who excel – to angels,
heroes, and magistrates; and some render it here, not God, but
brave or hero."––(apud Sandium, p. 118, Esromus Rudingerus [as
quoted in Concessions, by Wilson])

"It is evident that la [ale] properly denotes strong,
powerful, and is used in Ezek. Xxxi. 11, of king
Nebuchadnezzar, who is called... "the mighty one of the
heathen."––(Scholia in Vetus Testamentum. Lips. 1828-36, 6
vol, E.F.C. Rosenmuller [Prof. of the Arabic Language at
Leipzig; d. 1836])

...and, do you really think both of them are the Father, as you have stated above? If you do, then you are a Sabellianist, not a trinitarian.

While you are in the 28 Chapter read verse 9, then turn to Acts 2:38 and read.
18.  Why didn't it say Jehovah?
There is something else that bothers me, that Rom l0:13.  Now read Acts 4:10-12, If both names are equally important 19.  Why are they not listed together?  Unless he is the same.-given name 20.  Please comment.
Reply: Because Jesus was GIVEN  a better name. "Wherefore also God highly exalted him, and gave unto him the name which is above every name." Php 2:9
Almighty God does not need to be exalted, he does not need to be given a name above all others.
You see, in the past, you can do things in a prophet's name (1 Ki 21:8) or in a king's name (1 Sa 25:9), but unlike these, including the angels, "he hath inherited a more excellent name than they." Heb 1:4
Jn 17:2 just as you gave him authority over all people, so that he may give eternal life to all you gave him. NAB
Jn 17:11 And now I will no longer be in the world, but they are in the world, while I am coming to you. Holy Father, keep them in yourname that you have given me, so that they may be one just as we are. NAB
We don't need to know that Almighty God is better than the angels, for that is already understood. Almighty God does not need to inherit anything, for that is understood.
Let's move along to Rev l:4 it speaks of the one who is, and who was and who is coming.  Now read verse 8.  I am the Alpha and the Omega says Jehovah God "the one who is and who was and who is coming the Almighty."  Now back up to verse 7 and it says he is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, and those who pierced him.
21.  Who pierced the Almighty?  In verse 17,18 reads I am the first and the last, verse l8 and the living one, and I became dead.  So this is Jesus.  Could this explain the one "who was" in verse 8?  So let's get this straight Jehovah is the Alpha & Omega (I know you know what that means), and Jesus is the First and last in ver 17,18.
22.  Who is speaking in Rev 22:14?
You know now that I'm thinking about it you have two of everything else you might as well have two first and last!!
Reply: Well, let us take a closer look at this.
In verse 4, we have John talking, until verse 7, which ends with "Amen."
Verse 7 refers to Jesus, and it ends with "Amen."
Verse 8 we have the Lord God talking, but then, in verse 9, it starts off with John talking again.
To confuse things even further, all this was sent via an angel. (Rev 1:1).
Jesus is "the first and the last" with reference to his death and resurrection."
All references to Jesus as being the "first and the last" have this limitation. Let us take a look?  "I am the first and the last, and the Living one; and I was dead" Rev 1:17,18 (Actually, one of the oldest manuscripts that we have (A) has the word "firstborn" here.
"These things saith the first and the last, who was dead, and lived [again]" Rev. 2:8
"Jesus Christ, [who is] the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead" Rev 1:5 See also Romans 14:9 and Col 1:18.
Just a few more questions.  In verse 3 it reads, "But the throne of God (Jehovah), and of the lamb (Jesus) will be in the city and his slaves will render him sacred service.  Ver 4 and they will see his face.
23.  Should this have read their throne, and see their faces?  According to previous passages both are coming (ver 12,13 & Jesus in ver 20)  According to Matt 25:31 the son of man arrives in his glory (Isaiah 42:9) and all the angels with him, then he will sit on his glorious throne.  Now back in Rev. 22:3 it reads, "the throne of God"
24.  Do we now have two thrones?So back to Rev 22:3,4
25.  Who is on the throne?  Now verse 4 and they will see his face, and his name (singular)  will be on their foreheads.  Well guess what?  Read Rev l4:l now you've got two names on one forehead!!!  Unless......they are the same God.  This reminds me.
Reply: Rev 22:3 actually mentions THREE different parties, God, the Lamb, and the servants. When the name is mentioned, we can exclude the other 2. as it is definitely the Lord God that is the referent (see verse 5), which is a term (i.e. Lord God) never used of Christ (the Lamb) or his slaves (servants).
Do we have 2 thrones? Yes we do. Remember that the Jewish kings sat on Jehovah's throne (1 Chron 29:23) and that Jesus would be at God's right hand, "thus he is made second in authority to God himself." Footnote at Ps 110:1 NIV Study Bible
Jesus gets his glory from the Father (John 1:14), and we share in that glory (John 17:22), but are to acknowledge that "Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." Everything eventually comes back to the Father.
Remember too that Jesus, God's agent, his hands the kingdom BACK to God the Father (1 Cor 15:24) so in this way, we can speak of both of them as coming.
Jesus, as agent, represents God in such a way that he hold a functional equality with him.
"The main point of the Jewish law of agency is expressed in the dictum, "A person's agent is regarded as the person himself. Therefore any act committed by a duly appointed agent is regarded as having been committed by the principle."
The Encyclopedia of the Jewish Religion, R.J.Z. Werblowski and Geoffrey Wigoder (click here for more)
Question? Why is it that the person of the holy spirit is never pictured in the visions of heaven?
26.  Why would Jesus say your treasure is in heaven (Matt 6:l9-21, Mark l0:21, Luke 12:33/l8:22 if only l44,000 are going to heaven?
Reply: Matt 6:9 says, "Your kingdom come, your will be done on earth as it is in heaven." NAB
So what does the heavenly hope have to do with earth? Those in heaven are to rule over those on earth (Rev 5:10).
One last question
27.  Did you know that Jesus and Jehovah have their own individual angel Rev 22:6,l6?
Reply: So does Satan (Rev 12:9) and Michael (Rev 12:7). Angel simply means "messenger."
Why does the person of the holy spirit not have any of his own individual angels?

I know you like to sign off with l Cor l:27, But I like 2 Cor 4: 3-7, please notice verse (5) also 2 Tim 3:l6

Reply: I like those scriptures also, but when is the last time you knocked on our door to preach "Jesus Christ as Lord", to "give us the light of the knowledge of God in the face of Christ?" NIV
Jesus said he seeks not his own glory, but he honors his Father (John 8:49, 50). When have you really honored the Father?

"every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."
Php 2:11 ASV
When is the last time you had done this?
Isaiah 64:8 says, "O Jehovah, thou art our Father." ASV
But do you really honor the Father? Mal 1:6 says, "A son honoreth his father, and a servant his master: if then I am a father, where is mine honor? and if I am a master, where is my fear? saith Jehovah of hosts unto you, O priests, that despise my name." ASV
When is the last time you honored his great and holy name?

"For the Name of Jehovah I proclaim, Ascribe ye greatness to our God! The Rock! --perfect [is] His work, For all His ways [are] just; God of stedfastness, and without iniquity: Righteous and upright [is] He. It hath done corruptly to Him; Their blemish is not His sons', A generation perverse and crooked!  To Jehovah do ye act thus, O people foolish and not wise? Is not He thy father--thy possessor? He made thee, and doth establish thee." Deut 32 Young's Literal Version
"Let them praise the name of Jehovah; For his name alone is exalted; His glory is above the earth and the heavens." Ps 148:13 American Standard Version
"I will protect those who know my name." Psalm 91:14 NRSV
There is no salvation Jerry, without the Name!
"a book of remembrance was written before him, for them that feared Jehovah, and that thought upon his name." Mal 3:16 ASV

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