at http://www.kevinquick.com/kkministries/books/reasoning/nwt.html
with another Response Here via Thumim1

Q1. Does the New World Translation give
                  accurate translations of Bible verses which
                  normally indicate the deity of Christ?

                  Zech 12:10-"And I [Jehovah] will pour out upon
                  the house of David and upon the inhabitants of
                  Jerusalem the spirit of favor and entreaties, and
                  they will certainly look to the One [Heb. Me]
                  whom they pierced through, and they will certainly
                  wail over Him as in the wailing over an only
                  [son]; and there will be a bitter lamentation over
                  him as when there is bitter lamentation over the
                  firstborn [son]."

Answer: The Good News Bible(TEV), Moffatt, Jerusalem Bible, Modern Language Bible, New American Bible, Revised Standard Version, Byington and Smith&Goodspeed read similarly to the NWT. In fact if you look at the greek equivalent at John 19:37, it also reads "the one" NIV.

              Matt 2:2,8,11,14:33, John 9:38, Heb 1:6, etc.-But
                  when he again brings his First-born into the
                  inhabited earth, he says: "And let all God's angels
                  do obeisance [Gr. worship-see NWT, Heb 1:6
                  footnote] to him."

Answer: The greek word used here, "proskuneo," is not the highest form
of worship, that is reserved for latreuo (Phil 3:3, Acts 7:42, 24:14). Vine's Expository Reference explains PROSKUNEO as "to make obeisance, do reverence to." It is used of a man(Matt 18:26) and to God and a King at the same time(1 Chronicles 29:20 LXX), to the Dragon in revelations(Rev.13:4),to the Beast(Rev.13:4, 8, 12; 14:9,11), the image of the Beast(Rev 13:15,14:11), to Demons(Rev. 9:20), and idols(Acts 7:43). Accordingly  the New English Bible, Schonfield, Byington, Young, New Jerusalem, Goodspeed, Newcome, Revised English Bible, 20th Century NT, Confraternity, Kleist&Lilly and the Douay read similarly.

              John 1:1-In [the] beginning the Word was, and the
                  Word was with God, and the Word was a god
                  [Gr. God was the Word].

Answer: For a full explanation see http://hector3000.future.easyspace.com/nwt.htm#beduhn
In a beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and a god was the Word. (Interlinear Word for Word English
Translation-Emphatic Diaglott)
Harwood, 1768, "and was himself a divine person"
Newcome, 1808, "and the word was a god"
Thompson, 1829, "the Logos was a god
Goodspeed, 1939, "the Word was divine
Torrey, 1947, "the Word was god
New English, 1961, "what God was,the Word was"
Moffatt, 1972, "the Logos was divine
Translator's NT, 1973, "The Word was with God and shared his nature
Barclay, 1976, "the nature of the Word was the same as the nature of God"
Schneider, 1978, "and godlike sort was the Logos
Schonfield, 1985, "the Word was divine
Revised English, 1989, "what God was, the Word was
Scholar's Version, 1993, "The Divine word and wisdom was there with God, and it was what God was
Madsen, 1994, "the Word was <EM>a divine Being"
Becker, 1979, "ein Gott war das Logos" [a God/god was the Logos/logos]
Stage, 1907, "Das Wort war selbst gttlichen Wesens" [The Word/word was itself a divine Being/being].
Bhmer, 1910, "Es war fest mit Gott verbunden, ja selbst gttlichen Wesens" [It was strongly linked to God, yes itself divine
Being/being]
Thimme, 1919, "Gott von Art war das Wort" [God of Kind/kind was the Word/word]
Baumgarten et al, 1920, "Gott (von Art) war der Logos" [God (of Kind/kind) was the Logos/logos]
Holzmann, 1926, "ein Gott war der Gedanke" [a God/god was the Thought/thought]
Rittenlmeyer, 1938, "selbst ein Gott war das Wort" [itself a God/god was the Word/word]
Lyder Brun (Norw. professor of NT theology), 1945, "Ordet var av guddomsart" [the Word was of divine kind]
Pffflin, 1949, "war von gttlicher Wucht [was of divine Kind/kind]
Albrecht, 1957, "gttlichen Wesen hatte das Wort" [godlike Being/being had the Word/word]
Smit, 1960, "verdensordet var et guddommelig vesen" [the word of the world was a divine being]
Menge, 1961, "Gott (= gttlichen Wesens) war das Wort"[God(=godlike Being/being) was the Word/word)
Haenchen, 1980, "Gott (von Art) war der Logos" [God (of Kind/kind) was the Logos/logos]
Die Bibel in heutigem Deutsch, 1982, "r war bei Gott und in allem Gott gleich"[He was with God and in all like God]
Haenchen (tr. By R. Funk), 1984, "divine (of the category divinity)was the Logos"
Schultz, 1987, "ein Gott (oder: Gott von Art) war das Wort" [a God/god (or: God/god of Kind/kind) was the Word/word]

              John 8:58-Jesus said to them: "Most truly I say to
                  you, Before Abraham came into existence, I have
                  been [Gr. I am-cp. Ex 3:14, LXX]."

Answer: Jesus was here referring to his pre-existence, as in Micah 5:2. He was making no claim to Exodus 3:14 as many say. The LXX renders Ex. 3:14 as eigo eimi ho ohn or "I am the Being" which is quite different, as is the hebrew which is Ehyeh Asher Ehyeh which can better be rendered "I will be what I will be"(Moffatt, NWT). Almost all Bible translate the word Ehyeh as "I will be" at Exodus 3:12. To change it 2 scriptures later is unfortunate.
The Living New Testament: "The absolute truth
is that I was in existence before Abraham was
ever born."
The 20th Century New Testament: "before Abraham
existed I was."
The New Testament, An American Translation
Goodspeed: "I tell you I existed before Abraham
was born."
The Complete Bible, An American Translation
Goodspeed: "I tell you I existed before Abraham
was born."
New Believers Bible, New Living Translation:
"I existed before Abraham was even born."
The New Testament, C. B. Williams: "I solemnly
say to you, I existed before Abraham was born."
The Book, New Testament: The absolute truth is
that I was in existence before Abraham was ever born."
The Living Bible: "I was in existence before Abraham
was ever born."
Lattimore: "Truly, truly I tell
you, I am from before Abraham was born."
The New Testament, From the Peshitta Text,
Lamsa: "Before Abraham was born, I was."
An American Translation, In The Language of
Today, Beck: "I was before Abraham."
New Testament Contemporary English Version:
"I tell you.that even before Abraham was, I was,
and I am."
The Unvarnished New Testament: "Before
Abraham was born, I have already been."
The New Testament, Klist & Lilly: "I am here-and
I was before Abraham."
The New Testament in the Language of the People,
Williams: "I existed before Abraham was born."
The New Testament, Noyes: "From before Abraham
was, I have been."
A Translation of the Four Gospels, Lewis: "Before
Abraham was, I have been."
The Syriac New Testament, Murdock: "Before
Abraham existed I was."
The Curetonian Version of the Four Gospels,
Burkitt& The Old Georgian Version of the Gospel of John,
Blake & Briere "Before Abraham came to be, I was."
The New Testament Or Rather the New Covenant,
Sharpe: "I was before Abraham was born."
The 20th Century New Testament 1904: "Before
Abraham existed I was already what I am."
The New Testament, Stage: "Before Abraham
came to be, I was."
The Coptic Version the New Testament in the
Southern Dialect, Horner: "Before Abraham became,
I, I am being."
The Documents of the New Testament, Wade:
"Before Abraham came into being, I have existed."
The Concise Gospel and The acts, Christianson:
"I existed even before Abraham was born."
A Translators Handbook to the Gospel of John, Nida:
"Before Abraham existed, I existed, or.I have existed."
The Simple English Bible: "I was alive before
Abraham was born."
The Original New Testament, Schonfield: "I tell you
for a positive fact, I existed before Abraham was born."
The Complete Gospels Annotated Scholars Version,
Miller: "I existed before there was an Abraham."

              John 10:33-The Jews answered him: "We are
                  stoning you, not for a fine work, but for
                  blasphemy, even because you, although being a
                  man, make yourself a god [Gr. God]."

Answer:  Torrey's translation lowercases the word as "god," while the interlinear reading of The Emphatic Diaglott says "a god." The New English Bible also uses "a god". Support for the rendering "a god" is found principally in Jesus' own answer, in which he quoted from Psalm 82:1-7. As can be seen, this text did not refer to persons as being called "God," but "gods" and "sons of the Most High."

              Phil 2:6-who, although he was existing in God's
                  form, gave no consideration to a seizure,
                  namely, that he should be equal to God [Gr.
                  who in [the] form of God subsisting not robbery
                  deemed [it] the to be equal with God]

Answer: Ralph Martin, says in The Epistle of Paul to the Philippians: "It is questionable, however, whether the sense of the verb can glide from its real meaning of 'to seize', 'to snatch violently' to that of 'to hold fast.'" The Expositor's Greek Testament also says: "We cannot find any passage where harpazo or any of its derivatives has the sense of 'holding in possession,' 'retaining'. It seems invariably to mean 'seize,' 'snatch violently'. Thus it is not permissible to glide from the true sense 'grasp at' into one which is totally different, 'hold fast.'" If we read the preceeding verse it tells us to "have the same attitude that was in Christ." Does that mean that we should try to be equal with God? Of course not. That is why many other versions read similarly to the NWT like the RSV, ASV, New English, New American etc.

              Col 2:8-9-Christ; because it is in him that all the
                  fullness of the divine quality [Gr. Deity or
                  Godhead] dwells bodily.

Answer:The Latin Vulgate at Col. 2:9 uses the Latin word DIVINITATIS to render THEOTHTOS. DIVINITATIS is the Latin word for 'divinity' and was commonly referenced by the speeches and writings of Constantine. Divinity may differ from "deity", even anointed Christians will one day possess the 'divine nature.' They will see God and be "partakers of the divine nature" (2 Pet. 1:4; 1 John 3:2). Other Bibles render Col. 2:9 as: "For the full content of divine nature lives in Christ, in his humanity." TEV(Good News Bible)
"For it is in him that the immensity of the Divine Wisdom corporately dwells." Schonfield
"Because in him resides all the fulfillment of the divine." Lattimore

              Q2. Does the New World Translation give
                  accurate translations of Bible verses which
                  explain the requirements for salvation?

                  John 17:3-"This means everlasting life, their
                  taking in knowledge of you [Gr. that they may
                  know you], the only true God, and of the one
                  whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ."

 Answer: Is "that they may know you" really that different from "their taking in knowledge of you"? No! A quick look at Strong's numbers will clear this up(1097 GINOSKO) = "to know, in a great variety of applications and with many implications(as follow, with others not thus clearly expressed): -allow, be aware(of) feel, (have) know(ledge), perceive, be resolved, can speak, be sure, understand". In fact, Vine's Expository Dictionary gives "to be taking in knowledge" as the first definition of GINOSKO.

              Rom 10:9-10-For if you publicly declare [Gr.
                  confess] that word in your own mouth, that Jesus
                  is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God
                  raised him up from the dead, you will be saved.
                  For with the heart one exercises faith for
                  righteousness, but with the mouth one makes
                  public declaration [Gr. one confesses] for
                  salvation.

Answer: The Same Greek word for confess(HOMOLOGEO) is also used at Matt 7:23 as declare. NKJV Vine's Expository Dictionary gives "to declare openly by way of speaking out freely, such confession being the effect of deep conviction of facts" as one definition. Smith&Goodspeed, Schonfield, 20th Century NT, J.B. Phillips, Jewish NT, Living Bible, New Life NT, CEV, Williams NT,  etc also do not use "confesses" and read similarly to the NWT.

              Heb 13:15-Through him let us always offer to God
                  a sacrifice of praise, that is, the fruit of lips which
                  make public declaration to his name [Gr.
                  confessing to the name of him].

Read above.

              Q3. Does the New World Translation give
                  accurate translations of Bible verses pertaining to
                  the Christian's personal relationship with Jesus
                  Christ?

                  1 Cor 1:9-God is faithful, by whom you were
                  called into a sharing [Gr. fellowship] with his
                  Son Jesus Christ our Lord.

Answer: Again, a quick check at Vine's Expository Dictionary will let you know that the Greek word used here, KOINONIA can mean "sharing in common" as well as "fellowship". BBE, REB, Simple English Bible, Moffatt, NEB read similarly to the NWT.

              2 Cor 11:3-But I am afraid that somehow, as the
                  serpent seduced Eve by its cunning, your minds
                  might be corrupted away from the sincerity and
                  the chastity that are due the Christ [Gr. the
                  simplicity and the purity in Christ].

Answer: Few Bible versions read exactly like this (the ASV being one of the few that I could find). Many others use the word "sincerity" or "sincere" just like the NWT(see NIV, RSV, Amplified, NAB) and as for chastity/purity, see CHASTE in Vine's and also Weymouth, Smith&Goodspeed(fidelity) and Rotherham (chasteness).

                  2 Cor 13:5-Or do you not recognize that Jesus
                  Christ is in union with you [Gr. Jesus Christ is in
                  you]?

Answer: Look up 1722 in Strong's and you will see that this word (EN) has upwards of about 40 different meanings. While UNION isn't specifically mentioned it does fit the parameters mentioned(in, above, on, by means of, against, about, altogether etc). The NWT has compounded all these words and come up with UNION which is an improvement since Jesus is not physically IN us. Smith&Goodspeed, REB, Simple English Bible, Moffatt and the NEB use some of the other words included.

              1 John 1:3-Furthermore, this sharing [Gr.
                  fellowship] of ours is with the Father and with his
                  Son Jesus Christ.

See above. .

              Q4. Are there other verses in which the New
                  World Translation disagrees with the original
                  Greek and with the standard independent
                  translations of the Bible?

                  Matt 5:18-for truly I say to you that sooner would
                  [Gr. until] heaven and earth pass away than for
                  one smallest letter or one particle of a letter to
                  pass away from the Law by any means and not all
                  things take place.

Answer: "For solemnly I say to you, heaven and earth would SOONER pass away..."Williams NT,
"heaven and earth will pass away SOONER..." Alba House NT see also:
Smith&Goodspeed, J.B. Philipps, REB, Simple English Bible, New Berkeley Version, TEV, NEB, Message
Why do these Versions not use the same preposition that Kevin Quick says it should? We know that the literal heavens and earth will never pass away. (Psalm 78:69; 104:5; Ecclesiastes 1:4) Jesus also said: "It is easier for a camel to go through a needle's eye than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God." (Mark 10:25) It is simply a matter of exaggeration and the NWT along with these others mentioned bring out a better sense of meaning.Also the preposition is followed by the greek word HOS(like) rendering it literally as UNTIL LIKELY. Quick's translation above does not use this word and does not carry this meaning.

              Matt 27:52-53-And the memorial tombs were
                  opened and many bodies of the holy ones that
                  had fallen asleep were raised up, (and persons,
                  coming out from among the memorial tombs
                  after his being raised up, entered into the holy
                  city,) and they became visible to many people.
                  [Gr. and the tombs were opened and many bodies
                  of the having fallen asleep saints were raised; and
                  coming forth out of the tombs after the rising of
                  him entered into the holy city and appeared to
                  many.]

Answer: I think the above example shows a good example of how faithfully the NWT renders this passage, especially after reading the NIV, Good News Bible and others that insert words like "raised TO LIFE". I wonder if Mr Quick objects to these interpolations?  Protestant Bible Commentator,  Adam Clarke, states: "It is difficult to account for the transaction mentioned in Mt 27 verses 52 and 53. Some have thought that these two verses have been introduced into the text of Matthew from the gospel of the Nazarenes, others think the simple meaning is this:—by the earthquake several bodies that had been buried were thrown up and exposed to view, and continued above ground till after Christ's resurrection, and were seen by many persons in the city. Why the graves should be opened on Friday, and the bodies not raised to life till the following Sunday, is difficult to be conceived. The place is extremely obscure." Jesus mentioned a resurrection of life or judgement at John 5:28, 29, but this account states that neither happened.

              Acts 5:3-But Peter said: "Ananias, why has Satan
                  emboldened you to play false [Gr. lie] to the holy
                  spirit and to hold back secretly some of the price
                  of the field?"

Answer: The greek word here PSEUDOMAI (5574)is explained as "attempt to decieve by falsehood" Strong's, so again, I am in ignorance to what the problem is here. Byington also has "play false", Rotherham has "deal falsely". See also Weymouth, God's Word, Amplified, Phillips and Knox.

              2 Cor 11:8-Other congregations I robbed by
                  accepting provisions [Gr. taking wages] in order
                  to minister to you...

Answer: W.E.Vine's explains as to the use of "wages"OPSONION in 2 Cor. 11:8,"of material support which Paul recieved" See also REB, New Berkeley Ver(MLB), Amplified, NEB, Jewish NT, NAB, Living Bible, NLT, NiRV and Wuest.

              Eph 4:24, Col 3:10-clothe yourselves with the
                  new personality [Gr. having put on the new man]

Answer: Pertaining to Ephesians and Colossians W.E. Vine's says, "'the new man', standing for the new nature personified as the believer's regenerate self [as opposed to the former unregenerate nature(on the same page)], a nature 'created in righteousness and holiness of truth' Eph. 4:24 and having been 'put on' at regeneration....."p. 388 See also New Berkeley Ver(MLB), Simple English Bible, REB, 20th Cent.NT, Moffatt, Smith&Goodspeed, Schonfield, TEV, Lattimore, NRSV, Weymouth, NEB, RSV, Jewish NT, Montgomery, NAB, Living Bible etc etc etc.....

              Heb 12:23-spiritual lives of righteous ones [Gr.
                  spirits of just men] who have been made perfect

Answer: First, the word MAN is not even in the greek text here. You have to wonder what Greek text is used here.
 Few understand all the meanings of spirit(PNUEMA), which, according to Strong's(4151) and Vine's can also mean: air, breath, wind, mental disposition(-ual, ually) mind, the sentient element of man by which he perceives, reflects, desires, moral qualities and activities etc. It is also closely associated with LIFE(see Romans 8:4-6).
A quick look will also reveal that "just" can mean "righteous". Rotherham has "righteous ones", see also NRSV,Beck
 

              Q5. The name Jehovah occurs 237 times in the
                  New World Translation of the Greek Scriptures.
                  Does the tetragrammaton appear in any of the
                  extant Greek manuscripts?

                  "Why, then, do all extant copies of the 'New
                  Testament' lack the Tetragrammaton?" (WT
                  5/1/78, p. 10)

Answer: The article used here from the 1978 WT also quoted the Journal of Biblical Literature. (Vol. 96, No. 1, 1977, pp. 63-83) In fact, right after the above quote used by the Kevin Quick Ministries, the WT quoted  Professor Howard saying of the Septuagint:
"The Tetragram in these quotations would, of course, have remained as long as it continued to be used in the Christian copies of the LXX. But when it was removed from the Greek OT, it was also removed from the quotations of the OT in the NT."
That's right, research has shown that the LXX used the Divine Name originally, but it was later removed by unscrupulous individuals. The NWT never tries to hide the fact that this name is not found in any extant manuscript, and it has substituted lord with the Divine Name where it deems necessary. I find it incredible that those who complain about this never complain that most mainstream Bibles substitute the Divine Name with LORD about 7000 times, even though this goes against the manuscripts they use. The NWT is not the only translation that uses the Divine Name(Jehovah/Yahweh) in the NT. See also Emphatic Diaglott,1796 Dominikus von Brentano, Inclusive Language NT, Richard Caddick NT and about 25 others mentioned in the NWT Ref. Introduction. The NKJV has also capitalized LORD in the NT where the Divine Name should appear.

Should we always Translate as Literal as the Original Language(Hebrew or Greek)? Obviously Mr. Bjorquist and others would say yes. "He[the translator] thinks that as long as he keeps the "same" words he cannot be too far wrong with the meaning. Instead, what he has done is not translation at all- he has put a new, and therefore wrong message in the bible. Whenever this happens, the problem has become very serious indeed." Norman Mundhenk, What Translation are you Using, The Bible Translator, Oct 1974, pp 419,420
For instance, in 1Samuel 24:3 the NWT uses the phrase "ease nature" while the original has "cover his feet". Is this is a mistranslation? After all the New World Translation is supposed to be literal Bible. But other literal Bibles such as the NKJV and the NASB also do not use the words "cover his feet". They use "relieve himself." This follows the original meaning better and it is an improvement.

Conclusion: I have brought some of the above examples to Mr. Quick's attention some time ago, but he was not interested in the truth. As we can see from the previous examples, many translators of both Catholic and Protestant persuasion reflect the New World Translation, which makes for  shoddy scholarship on the part of KQ Ministries and reflects a clear bias based on emotion not facts. " But let God be found true, though every man be found a liar, even as it is written: "That you might be proved righteous in your words and might win when you are being judged." Romans 3:4